School of Physics

Hi, just want to check this:
When we say that the movement of a magnet onto a superconductor induces currents in the superconductor which create a magnetic field opposing the magnetic field of the magnet, is it correct to say that the induced currents where solely the product of originally moving the magnet onto the superconductor and that they will flow infinitely due to no resistance?

Is there anything else going on here?

Thanks

Yes, it is a bit more subtle. I've put notes about levitation of a magnet on the High School Physics FAQ at
http://www.phys.unsw.edu.au/~jw/FAQ.html

Joe